The Univalent Perspective on Classifying Spaces
Posted by Mike Shulman
I feel like I should apologize for not being more active at the Cafe recently. I’ve been busy, of course, and also most of my recent blog posts have been going to the HoTT blog, since I felt most of them were of interest only to the HoTT crowd (by which I mean, “people interested enough in HoTT to follow the HoTT blog” — which may of course include many Cafe readers as well). But today’s post, while also inspired by HoTT, is less technical and (I hope) of interest even to “classical” higher category theorists.
In general, a classifying space for bundles of ’s is a space such that maps are equivalent to bundles of ’s over . In classical algebraic topology, such spaces are generally constructed as the geometric realization of the nerve of a category of ’s, and as such they may be hard to visualize geometrically. However, it’s generally useful to think of as a space whose points are ’s, so that the classifying map of a bundle of ’s assigns to each the corresponding fiber (which is an ). For instance, the classifying space of vector bundles can be thought of as a space whose points are vector spaces, where the classifying map of vector bundle assigns to each point the fiber over that point (which is a vector space).
In classical algebraic topology, this point of view can’t be taken quite literally, although we can make some use of it by identifying a classifying space with its representable functor. For instance, if we want to define a map , we’d like to say “a point is a vector space, so let’s do blah to it and get another vector space . We can’t do that, but we can do the next best thing: if blah is something that can be done fiberwise to a vector bundle in a natural way, then since is naturally equivalent to the collection of vector bundles over , our blah defines a natural transformation , and hence a map by the Yoneda lemma.
However, in higher category theory and homotopy type theory, we can really take this perspective literally. That is, if by “space” we choose to mean “-groupoid” rather than “topological space up to homotopy”, then we can really define the classifying space to be the -groupoid of ’s, whose points (objects) are ’s, whose morphisms are equivalences between ’s, and so on. Now, in defining a map such as our , we can actually just give a map from ’s to ’s, as long as we check that it’s functorial on equivalences — and if we’re working in HoTT, we don’t even have to do the second part, since everything we can write down in HoTT is automatically functorial/natural.
This gives a different perspective on some classifying-space constructions that can be more illuminating than a classical one. Below the fold I’ll discuss some examples that have come to my attention recently.
All of these examples have to do with the classifying space of “types equivalent to ” for some fixed . Such a classifying space, often denoted , has the property that maps are equivalent to maps (perhaps “fibrations” or “bundles”) all of whose fibers are equivalent (a homotopy type theorist might say “merely equivalent”) to . The notation accords with the classical notation for the delooping of a (perhaps -) group: in fact this is a delooping of the group of automorphisms of .
Categorically (and homotopy-type-theoretically), we simply define to be the full sub--groupoid of (the -groupoid of -groupoids) whose objects are those equivalent to . You might have thought I was going to say the full sub--groupoid on the single object , and that would indeed give us an equivalent result, but the examples I’m about to discuss really do rely on having all the other equivalent objects in there. In particular, note that an arbitrary object of is an -groupoid that admits some equivalence to , but no such equivalence has been specified.
Example 1:
As the first example, let , the standard discrete space with two points. Then , the cyclic group on 2 elements, and so . Since is an abelian group, again has a (2-)group structure, i.e. we should have a multiplication operation , an identity, inversion, etc.
Using the equivalence , we can describe all of these operations directly. A point is a space that’s equivalent to , but without a specified equivalence. Thus, is a set with two elements, but we haven’t chosen either of those elements to call “” or “”. As long as we perform constructions on without making such an unnatural choice, we’ll get maps that act on and hence as well.
The identity element of it’s fairly obvious: there’s only one canonical element of , namely itself. The multiplication is not as obvious, and there may be more than one way to do it, but after messing around with it a bit you may come to the same conclusion I did: the product of should be , the set of isomorphisms between and . Note that when and are 2-element sets, so is , but in general there’s no way to distinguish either of those isomorphisms from the other one, nor is naturally isomorphic to or . It is, however, obviously commutative: .
Moreover, if is the identity element, then is naturally isomorphic to : we can define by evaluating at . Similarly, , so our “identity element” has the desired property.
Furthermore, if , then does have a distinguished element, namely the identity. Thus, it naturally equivalent to by sending the identity to . So every element of is its own inverse. The trickiest part is proving that this operation is associative. I’ll leave that to the reader (or you can try to decipher my Coq code).
(We did have to make some choices about whether to use or . I expect that as long as we make those choices consistently, making them differently will result in equivalent 2-groups.)
Example 2: An incoherent idempotent
In 1-category theory, an idempotent is a map such that . In higher category theory, the equality must be weakened to an isomorphism or equivalence, and then treated as extra data on which we ought to ask for additional axioms, such as that the two induced equivalences coincide (up to an equivalence, of course, which then satisfies its own higher laws, etc.).
A natural question is if we have only an equivalence , whether it can be “improved” to a “fully coherent” idempotent in this sense. Jacob Lurie gave the following counterexample in Warning 1.2.4.8 of Higher Algebra:
let denote the group of homeomorphisms of the unit interval which fix the endpoints (which we regard as a discrete group), and let denote the group homomorphism given by the formula
Choose an element such that for . Then for each , so that the group homomorphisms are conjugate to one another. It follows that the induced map of classifying spaces is homotopic to , and therefore idempotent in the homotopy category of spaces. However… cannot be lifted to a [coherent] idempotent in the -category of spaces.
Let’s describe this map in the more direct way I suggested above. Actually, let’s do something easier and just as good: let’s replace by Cantor space . It’s reasonable to guess that this should work, since the essential property of being used in the above construction is that it can be decomposed into two pieces (namely and ) which are both equivalent to itself, and has this property as well:
Moreover, has the advantage that this decomposition is disjoint, i.e. a coproduct. Thus, we can also get rid of the assumption that our automorphisms preserve endpoints, which was just there in order to allow us to glue two different automorphisms on the two copies in the decomposition.
Therefore, our goal is now to construct an endomap of which is incoherently, but not coherently, idempotent. As discussed above, the elements of are spaces that are equivalent to , but without any such specified equivalence. Looking at the definition of Lurie’s , we can see that intuitively, what it does is shrink the interval to half of itself, acting functorially, and add a new copy of the interval at the end. Thus, it’s reasonable to define by
Here is some space equivalent to , and in order for this map to be well-defined, we need to show is that if is equivalent to , then so is . However, the decomposition ensures this. Moreover, since our definition didn’t involve making any unnatural choices, it’s “obviously” (and in HoTT, automatically) functorial.
Now, is incoherently-idempotent, i.e. do we have ? Well, that is just asking whether
but this again follows from ! Showing that is not coherent is a bit harder, but still fairly straightforward using our description; I’ll leave it as an exercise, or you can try to decipher the Coq code.
Example 3: Natural pointed sets
Let’s end by considering the following question: in what cases does the natural map have a retraction, where is the symmetric group on elements? Looking at homotopy groups, this would imply that has a retraction, which is true for but not otherwise. But let’s look instead at the map on classifying spaces.
The obvious way to think about this map is to identify with , where is the discrete set with elements, and similarly with . Then an element of is a set with elements, and the map takes it to which has elements.
However, another possibility is to identify instead with the classifying space of pointed sets with elements. Since an isomorphism of pointed sets must respect the basepoint, this gives an equivalent groupoid, and now the map is just forgetting the basepoint. With this identification, a putative retraction would assign, to any set with elements, a pointed set with elements. Note that the underlying set need not be itself; they will of course be isomorphic (since both have elements), but there is no specified or natural isomorphism. However, to say that is a retraction of our given map says that if started out pointed, then is isomorphic to as pointed sets.
Let’s do some small examples. When , our map has to take a set with 1 element and assign to it a pointed set with 1 element. There’s obviously a unique way to do that, and just as obviously if we started out with a pointed set we get the same set back again.
The case is a bit more interesting: our map has to take a set with 2 elements and assign to it a pointed set with 2 elements. One option, of course, is to define for all . Since every pointed 2-element set is uniquely isomorphic to every other, this satisfies the requirement. Another option motivated by example 1, which is perhaps a little more satisfying, would be to define , which is pointed by the identity.
The case is more interesting still, since now it is not true that any two pointed 3-element sets are naturally isomorphic. Given a 3-element set , how do we assign to it functorially a pointed 3-element set? The best way I’ve thought of is to let be the set of automorphisms such that . This has 3 elements, the identity and two 3-cycles, and we can take the identity as a basepoint. And if came with a point , then we can define an isomorphism by sending to the unique having the property that .
The case is somewhat similar: given a 4-element set , define to be the set of automorphisms such that and whose set of fixed points is either empty or all of . This has 4 elements and is pointed by the identity; in fact, it is the permutation representation of the Klein four-group. And once again, if came with a point , we can define by sending to the unique such that .
I will end with a question that I don’t know the answer to: is there any way to see from this perspective on classifying spaces that such a retraction doesn’t exist in the case ?
Re: The Univalent Perspective on Classifying Spaces
(typography: the later s … did we mean or , perhaps? Of course we want to avoid Σ in the present context)